A -year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on the rd day of admission for sepsis secondary to a complicated urinary tract infection. He initially presented to the emergency department with fever, severe chills, and left-sided flank pain. His medical history includes benign prostatic hyperplasia and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On admission, his blood pressure was mm Hg and his heart rate was /min. He received aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation and was started on empiric intravenous vancomycin and cefepime.
Currently, the patient is clinically stable. His temperature is (), blood pressure is mm Hg, and pulse is /min. He reports that his flank pain has significantly improved.
Blood and urine cultures obtained on admission both grow CFU/mL of *Enterococcus faecalis*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing results are as follows:
Ampicillin: Susceptible
Vancomycin: Susceptible
Linezolid: Susceptible
Daptomycin: Susceptible
Ciprofloxacin: Resistant
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the antimicrobial management of this patient?
- AMaintain the patient on intravenous vancomycin alone
- Transition therapy to intravenous ampicillin aloneCevap
- CMaintain the current empiric regimen without changes
- DTransition therapy to intravenous linezolid alone
- EMaintain the patient on intravenous cefepime alone