A -year-old man comes to the clinic for follow-up. He has a history of medullary thyroid carcinoma, for which he underwent a total thyroidectomy with central lymph node dissection three years ago. Recent surveillance imaging revealed a newly developed -cm right adrenal mass. The patient reports experiencing episodic headaches, excessive sweating, and palpitations over the past three months. His temperature is C, blood pressure is mm Hg, and pulse is /min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory evaluation demonstrates significantly elevated -hour urine fractionated metanephrines and normetanephrines. A laparoscopic right adrenalectomy is planned. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Initiation of phenoxybenzamine therapyCevap
- BInitiation of propranolol therapy
- CImmediate laparoscopic right adrenalectomy
- DImage-guided percutaneous core biopsy of the mass
- EMeasurement of serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level