A -year-old man with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with a non-healing ulcer on the plantar aspect of his right foot. The ulcer is surrounded by cm of erythema and warmth. During physical examination, a sterile metal probe easily reaches the underlying bone. His temperature is (), blood pressure is mm Hg, and pulse is /min. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of . He is started on empiric intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam. A bone biopsy is performed on the second day of admission. By day , his fever has resolved, and the erythema has significantly decreased. The bone biopsy cultures grow only Staphylococcus aureus, which is sensitive to oxacillin, cefazolin, and clindamycin, but resistant to penicillin. No Gram-negative bacilli or anaerobes are isolated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- Discontinue the current regimen and begin intravenous cefazolinCevap
- BContinue the current regimen of intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- CDiscontinue intravenous vancomycin and continue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DDiscontinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and continue intravenous vancomycin
- EDiscontinue the current regimen and begin oral ciprofloxacin and clindamycin