A -year-old man comes to the urology clinic to discuss the results of recent imaging. Two weeks ago, he presented to the emergency department with mild left lower quadrant abdominal discomfort. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast was performed to evaluate for diverticulitis; the colon appeared normal, but an incidental -cm solid, heterogeneously enhancing, exophytic mass was discovered in the lower pole of the left kidney. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension and hyperlipidemia. His BMI is kg/m . Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen without palpable masses. Serum creatinine is mg/dL, and urinalysis shows no abnormalities. There is no evidence of lymphadenopathy or vascular involvement on the imaging. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ACT-guided core needle biopsy
- BRadical nephrectomy
- Partial nephrectomyCevap
- DActive surveillance with repeat imaging
- EEmpiric broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy