A 54-year-old man is reviewed by the medical team during his inpatient hospitalization. He was admitted 72 hours ago after presenting to the emergency department with an acutely painful, erythematous, and swollen right knee accompanied by shaking chills. Initial arthrocentesis yielded turbid synovial fluid containing with neutrophils. Following the procedure, he was empirically started on intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam. Today, his temperature has improved to (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . The right knee shows decreased swelling and erythema. Blood cultures and synovial fluid cultures obtained on admission are both positive for *Staphylococcus aureus*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing reveals the following:
| Antibiotic | Susceptibility |
|---|---|
| Penicillin | Resistant |
| Oxacillin | Susceptible |
| Cefazolin | Susceptible |
| Vancomycin | Susceptible |
| Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole | Susceptible |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in antibiotic management?
- Discontinue current antibiotics and initiate intravenous cefazolinCevap
- BContinue intravenous vancomycin and discontinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CDiscontinue intravenous vancomycin and continue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DDiscontinue current antibiotics and initiate oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- EAdd oral rifampin to the current antibiotic regimen