A 62-year-old retired architect with a long-standing history of bipolar I disorder is evaluated in the emergency department for worsening confusion, sluggishness, and an unsteady gait over the past three days. He has been psychiatrically stable on a fixed dose of lithium carbonate for eight years without any recent dosage adjustments. His husband reports that the patient recently started taking an over-the-counter analgesic multiple times a day for a severe flare-up of knee osteoarthritis. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a coarse, irregular tremor in both upper extremities and pronounced dysarthria. The patient is unable to perform tandem walking without losing his balance. Which of the following mechanisms best explains how the newly initiated analgesic precipitated this patient's current symptoms?
- Decreased renal clearance secondary to afferent arteriole vasoconstrictionCevap
- BEnhanced proximal tubular reabsorption secondary to intravascular volume depletion
- CInhibition of hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes leading to impaired drug metabolism
- DDisplacement of the psychotropic medication from plasma transport proteins
- ESynergistic overactivation of central postsynaptic serotonergic receptors