A 31-year-old male accountant presents to the clinic for an urgent follow-up appointment. He initially presented two weeks ago with a one-month history of severe sadness, hypersomnia, and profound anhedonia. At that time, he was diagnosed with a major depressive episode and prescribed fluoxetine. Today, he reports that his mood has not improved, but he now feels "extremely irritable, wired, and completely unable to sit still." His physical examination is notable for rapid, pressured speech and psychomotor agitation. Upon detailed psychiatric review, the patient admits that he experienced a similar "wired" state twice in his twenties. During those episodes, which each lasted approximately ten days, he required only two hours of sleep per night and impulsively spent thousands of dollars on unneeded electronics. He has no significant past medical history and denies any illicit substance use. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the fluoxetine and initiate treatment with a mood stabilizer such as quetiapineCevap
- BIncrease the fluoxetine dosage to provide optimized monotherapy for the underlying depressive symptoms
- CDiscontinue the fluoxetine and provide observation alone, as these symptoms represent a temporary adjustment reaction
- DAdd a secondary antidepressant to the current regimen without re-evaluating his history for past manic episodes
- EOrder a comprehensive urine toxicology screen to rule out a substance-induced mood disorder before altering medications