A 24-year-old university student presents to the outpatient clinic reporting persistent right wrist pain. Approximately 24 hours ago, he fell forward while skateboarding and braced his impact with an outstretched right hand. He describes a constant, dull ache located near the base of his thumb. On physical examination, there is minimal visible swelling and no obvious deformity. Palpation reveals distinct tenderness in the triangular depression on the radial aspect of the wrist when the thumb is fully extended. Capillary refill is less than 2 seconds, and sensation is intact in all digits. Initial anteroposterior, lateral, and scaphoid-view radiographs of the right wrist show no evidence of acute fracture, cortical disruption, or dislocation. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in patient management?
- AApply a supportive elastic compression bandage and advise routine use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- BArrange for an immediate non-contrast computed tomography scan of the right upper extremity
- Immobilize the wrist with a thumb spica splint and schedule a follow-up evaluation in 10 to 14 daysCevap
- DConsult orthopedic surgery for immediate closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
- EInject the symptomatic area with a local anesthetic and corticosteroid preparation