A term male infant (39 weeks gestation) is delivered via scheduled cesarean delivery for breech presentation to a 30-year-old primigravida. The mother had an uncomplicated pregnancy, and her group B Streptococcus screen was negative. Apgar scores are 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes. At 2 hours of life, the infant develops a respiratory rate of 78/min and mild subcostal retractions. Vital signs show a temperature of 36.9°C (98.4°F), heart rate of 142/min, and blood pressure of 65/40 mmHg. Pulse oximetry reveals an oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. Physical examination shows a well-grown infant with clear breath sounds bilaterally. Multiple 1- to 2-mm, discrete, pearly-white papules are present on the nasal bridge. A chest radiograph demonstrates increased lung volumes, prominent perihilar streaking, and fluid within the interlobar fissures. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
- Provision of supportive care and supplemental oxygenCevap
- BEmpiric administration of intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin
- CApplication of topical mupirocin to the facial lesions
- DAdministration of inhaled albuterol
- EAdministration of intravenous furosemide