A 54-year-old man develops severe pain, redness, and swelling of his right big toe on postoperative day 3 following an uncomplicated laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He cannot bear weight on the affected foot. His temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F), blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Examination shows an exquisitely tender, erythematous, and swollen right first metatarsophalangeal joint. Synovial fluid analysis reveals a leukocyte count of 22,000/mm³ and numerous negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer oral indomethacinCevap
- BInitiate oral allopurinol therapy
- CAdminister intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- DObtain a urinalysis and urine culture
- EAdminister intravenous furosemide
Cevap
Administer oral indomethacin
The correct answer is to administer an NSAID such as oral indomethacin. This patient presents with a classic acute gout flare (podagra), commonly precipitated by the physiological stress of surgery, changes in diet, or fluctuations in fluid status during hospitalization. The diagnosis is definitively established by the presence of negatively birefringent, needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals in the synovial fluid. The primary goal in acute gout management is the rapid reduction of inflammation, which is achieved through the use of NSAIDs, colchicine, or intra-articular/systemic corticosteroids.
Adım Adım Çözüm
Anahtar Kavram
The diagnosis and acute management of a gout flare.