An obese 13-year-old adolescent is brought to the clinic by his parents due to a four-week history of a right-sided limp and intermittent right knee pain. The pain is exacerbated by physical activity and relieved by rest. There is no history of trauma, fever, or weight loss. His body mass index is . Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is no swelling, erythema, or localized tenderness over the right knee. Ligamentous testing of the knee is normal. However, when the patient's right hip is passively flexed, the thigh obligately deviates into external rotation. Internal rotation of the right hip is significantly limited compared to the left. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AMagnetic resonance imaging of the right knee
- BReassurance, rest, and oral nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- Anteroposterior and frog-leg lateral radiographs of both hipsCevap
- DDiagnostic aspiration of the right hip joint
- EEmpiric administration of intravenous cefazolin