A 76-year-old woman is evaluated in the clinic prior to an elective right total knee arthroplasty scheduled for the following week. She has a history of osteoarthritis and well-controlled essential hypertension. She reports no new symptoms and specifically denies dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, suprapubic pain, fever, or chills. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination of the abdomen and costovertebral angles is unremarkable. As part of her preoperative evaluation, a urinalysis is obtained which shows white blood cells/hpf and is positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites. A subsequent urine culture grows of Escherichia coli that is susceptible to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin. Which of the following is the most appropriate management regarding these laboratory findings?
- APostpone the surgical procedure until a repeat urine culture is negative
- BAdminister a single dose of intravenous ceftriaxone preoperatively
- Proceed with the scheduled surgery without prescribing antimicrobial therapyCevap
- DPrescribe a course of oral nitrofurantoin prior to the procedure
- EPrescribe a course of oral ciprofloxacin prior to the procedure