A 43-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to a 3-day history of escalating, throbbing headaches, blurred vision, and severe shortness of breath. The patient has a known 4-year history of diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis. Three weeks ago, she received a high-dose oral prednisone taper for an exacerbation of joint pain and severe skin tightness.
Upon arrival, her temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is with an oxygen saturation of on room air. Physical examination reveals extensive skin thickening over the face, trunk, and proximal upper extremities. Fundoscopic examination demonstrates bilateral flame-shaped hemorrhages and papilledema. Chest auscultation reveals bibasilar crackles.
Laboratory studies are as follows:
| Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | ||
| Platelets | ||
| Blood urea nitrogen | ||
| Serum creatinine | ||
| Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) | ||
| Free thyroxine (T4) |
Peripheral blood smear shows 4 to 6 schistocytes per high-power field.
Arterial blood gas on room air:
pH:
:
:
Bicarbonate:
Urinalysis reveals proteinuria with no red blood cell casts. A recent outpatient sputum culture grew only normal respiratory flora.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's current condition?
- Administer oral captoprilCevap
- BAdminister intravenous furosemide and noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation
- CAdminister an intravenous sodium bicarbonate infusion
- DInitiate empiric intravenous broad-spectrum antimicrobial therapy
- EAdminister intravenous levothyroxine