A 45-year-old man is evaluated during hospital rounds. He was admitted 3 days ago for fever, productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain. A chest radiograph on admission showed a right lower lobe consolidation, and he was diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia. Empiric therapy with intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin was initiated. He has no significant past medical history and takes no daily medications. He has no known drug allergies. Today, the patient reports feeling significantly better. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 78/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Blood cultures obtained on admission are now growing *Streptococcus pneumoniae*. Susceptibility testing indicates the isolate is highly susceptible to penicillin, ceftriaxone, and levofloxacin, but resistant to macrolides. The patient is tolerating a regular diet without difficulty. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- Switch to oral amoxicillinCevap
- BSwitch to oral levofloxacin
- CSwitch to oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- DContinue intravenous ceftriaxone
- ESwitch to oral cefdinir