An emergency response team delivers a 69-year-old male to the trauma center following a syncopal episode at his residence. The patient's spouse reports that he complained of sudden, agonizing pain in his left flank radiating to his groin moments before collapsing. His medical records indicate a history of coronary artery disease and a 40-pack-year smoking history. On evaluation, he is lethargic, and his skin is cool, clammy, and mottled. His blood pressure is currently 74/42 mm Hg, heart rate is 128/min, and respiratory rate is 24/min. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a tender, prominently pulsatile central mass. Peripheral pulses in the lower extremities are diminished bilaterally. Two large-bore intravenous lines are placed. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AComputed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- BIntravenous administration of labetalol to reduce aortic shear stress
- Immediate transfer to the operating room for surgical explorationCevap
- DAdmission to the intensive care unit for permissive hypotension and observation
- EAdministration of broad-spectrum antibiotics and acquisition of blood cultures