A 45-year-old woman is evaluated on the medical ward by the psychiatric consultation-liaison service due to acute-onset agitation and confusion. The patient has a history of major depressive disorder, which has been well controlled on sertraline 150 mg daily for the past two years, and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. She was admitted three days ago for a severe diabetic foot infection. Deep tissue cultures grew Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium (VRE). Yesterday, her intravenous antibiotics were discontinued, and she was transitioned to a targeted oral antibiotic therapy to facilitate hospital discharge. This morning, she became rapidly disoriented and restless. Temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 165/95 mm Hg, pulse is 128/min, and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination reveals a diaphoretic, flushed woman who is unable to answer questions coherently. Her pupils are dilated (6 mm bilaterally). Neurologic examination is notable for 4+ deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities, spontaneous myoclonus, and sustained bilateral ankle clonus. Which of the following pharmacologic actions of the newly initiated antibiotic is most directly responsible for this patient's current clinical state?
- Inhibition of monoamine oxidaseCevap
- BBlockade of central dopamine receptors
- CAntagonism of central muscarinic receptors
- DInhibition of cytochrome P450 3A4
- EActivation of skeletal muscle ryanodine receptors