A 42-year-old female patient is evaluated in the outpatient surgical clinic on her third postoperative day. She reports new-onset, right-sided lower back pain accompanied by subjective fevers. Three days prior, she underwent an uncomplicated laparoscopic hysterectomy to treat symptomatic, large uterine leiomyomas. Her past medical history is notable only for mild asthma. Her current temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 122/76 mm Hg, and heart rate is 94/min. Physical examination demonstrates marked tenderness to percussion over the right costovertebral angle. Her abdomen is soft and non-distended, with well-healing laparoscopic port sites without erythema or induration. Urinalysis reveals 1 to 2 leukocytes per high-power field, negative nitrites, and no red blood cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Computed tomography urographyCevap
- BBroad-spectrum antimicrobial administration
- CDuplex ultrasound of the deep veins
- DPlain radiography of the thorax
- EUrgent surgical re-exploration