A physician is evaluating the antimicrobial regimen of a patient on the medical floor. The patient, a 58-year-old male, was admitted three days prior for management of severe shortness of breath and a productive cough. At the time of admission, imaging confirmed a left lower lobe consolidation, prompting the initiation of empiric intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Currently, the patient is clinically stable, breathing comfortably on ambient air, and tolerating his regular diet. He has not had a fever for over 24 hours. Laboratory data today reveals that the initial blood cultures are sterile. However, the admission sputum culture has finalized, demonstrating heavy growth of *Streptococcus pneumoniae*. Susceptibility profiling indicates the isolate is sensitive to penicillin, amoxicillin, levofloxacin, ceftriaxone, and vancomycin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Transition to oral amoxicillinCevap
- BTransition to oral levofloxacin
- CContinue the current intravenous antibiotic regimen
- DTransition to oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- ETransition to oral linezolid