During morning rounds, a -year-old woman is evaluated for a newly elevated temperature. She is currently on her sixth postoperative day following a low anterior resection with a primary colorectal anastomosis for rectal adenocarcinoma. Her postoperative course was initially uncomplicated, and a transurethral bladder catheter was removed days ago. Over the past hours, the patient has developed suprapubic pressure, frequent voiding of small urine volumes, and three episodes of loose, watery stool.
Her temperature is (), blood pressure is mmHg, pulse is /min, and respirations are /min. Physical examination reveals a dry and intact midline laparotomy incision with no surrounding erythema or fluctuance. Palpation of the lower abdomen elicits moderate deep tenderness, but there is no involuntary guarding or rebound tenderness.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Leukocyte count:
Urinalysis:
Color: Yellow
Appearance: Cloudy
Specific gravity:
Leukocyte esterase: Positive
Nitrites: Negative
WBCs: -/hpf
Bacteria: None
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvisCevap
- BInitiation of empiric oral fluoroquinolone therapy
- CBedside opening of the skin and subcutaneous tissues
- DInsertion of a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression
- EImmediate transfer to the operating room for exploratory laparotomy