A -year-old male college student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his roommate after developing a severe headache, confusion, and high fever over the previous hours. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Physical examination reveals marked nuchal rigidity and a non-blanching petechial rash on his lower extremities. A lumbar puncture is performed, and empiric therapy with intravenous ceftriaxone, vancomycin, and dexamethasone is promptly initiated. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows a leukocyte count of ( neutrophils), a glucose level of , and a protein level of . The following day, the patient's mental status improves. CSF culture grows *Neisseria meningitidis*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing is pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's antimicrobial management?
- AAdminister the full treatment course with both ceftriaxone and vancomycin.
- BReplace the current antibiotics with intravenous meropenem.
- CSwitch the antimicrobial therapy to oral ciprofloxacin.
- Stop the vancomycin infusion and maintain the ceftriaxone.Cevap
- EInclude intravenous ampicillin in the current therapeutic regimen.