A -year-old male is evaluated in the hospital on hospital day . He was initially admitted for worsening abdominal distension, lethargy, and confusion. He has a past medical history of alcoholic cirrhosis and esophageal varices. On admission, his temperature was (), blood pressure was , and pulse was . Physical examination revealed scleral icterus, spider angiomas, a prominent fluid wave, and mild, diffuse abdominal tenderness. Laboratory studies on admission showed:
| Laboratory Study | Result |
|---|---|
| Serum total bilirubin | |
| Serum creatinine | |
| Blood urea nitrogen |
A diagnostic paracentesis yielded hazy fluid with a leukocyte count of and polymorphonuclear cells. Due to a prolonged hospitalization for a variceal bleed one month prior, he was empirically started on intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam.
Today, his mental status has returned to baseline, and his abdominal discomfort has resolved. Ascitic fluid cultures from admission have grown *Escherichia coli*. Susceptibility testing shows the isolate is resistant to ciprofloxacin but sensitive to ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, piperacillin-tazobactam, and meropenem. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient's infection?
- AContinue therapy with intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- BAdd intravenous vancomycin to the current regimen
- Switch therapy to intravenous ceftriaxoneCevap
- DEscalate therapy to intravenous meropenem
- ETransition therapy to oral ciprofloxacin