During the overnight shift in the intensive care unit, a nurse urgently pages the surgical resident to evaluate a patient admitted earlier that evening. The patient, a 59-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled essential hypertension, was recently diagnosed with an acute descending thoracic aortic dissection. Initial management with an esmolol infusion successfully reduced his blood pressure to 112/74 mmHg and heart rate to 62/min.
Upon arrival at the bedside, the resident finds the patient writhing in agony, complaining of severe, diffuse abdominal pain that began abruptly 30 minutes ago. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with vague, mild tenderness to deep palpation and absent peritoneal signs. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. The lower extremities are warm with symmetric, easily palpable pedal pulses. Laboratory studies drawn stat reveal a serum lactate level of 6.3 mmol/L and a leukocyte count of 18,500/mm³.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Urgent thoracic endovascular aortic repairCevap
- BAddition of a titratable vasodilator to the current regimen
- CImmediate exploratory laparotomy for assessment of bowel viability
- DTransfer to the radiology suite for a non-contrast abdominal computed tomography scan
- EAdministration of intravenous loop diuretics