A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his adult daughter due to severe shortness of breath that has progressively worsened over the past 24 hours. He has a history of ischemic cardiomyopathy, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a 40-pack-year smoking history. The patient is visibly distressed, diaphoretic, and intermittently confused due to hypoxia. His daughter provides a legally valid advance directive naming her as the sole healthcare proxy. A few minutes later, the patient's estranged wife arrives at the bedside and demands to make his medical decisions.
Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure mm Hg, pulse /min, and respirations /min. Oxygen saturation is 84% on room air. Jugular venous distention is present to the angle of the mandible while sitting upright. Lung auscultation reveals bilateral crackles extending to the mid-lung fields and widespread expiratory wheezing. Cardiac auscultation demonstrates a regular tachycardia with a prominent S3 gallop. There is 2+ bilateral lower extremity pitting edema.
Arterial blood gas on room air shows:
pH:
pCO : mm Hg
pO : mm Hg
HCO : mEq/L
White blood cell count is .
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Initiate noninvasive positive pressure ventilation and administer intravenous furosemideCevap
- BAdminister inhaled albuterol, systemic corticosteroids, and low-flow supplemental oxygen
- CObtain blood cultures and initiate empiric intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- DAdminister intravenous sodium bicarbonate to correct the metabolic derangement
- EObtain consent for potential endotracheal intubation from the patient's estranged wife