A 24-year-old man with a known history of sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department reporting acute-onset chest pain, shortness of breath, and a productive cough. His symptoms began 12 hours ago and have progressively worsened. His temperature is (), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, and respiratory rate is 28/min. Oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Physical examination reveals dullness to percussion and decreased breath sounds over the right lower lung field.
Laboratory evaluation shows:
Hemoglobin: 7.0 g/dL
Leukocyte count:
Platelet count:
Reticulocyte count: 14%
Arterial blood gas on room air:
: 7.48
: 55 mm Hg
: 30 mm Hg
Chest radiograph demonstrates a new right lower lobe consolidation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin, supplemental oxygen, and cautious fluid hydrationCevap
- BIntravenous furosemide and initiation of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation
- COral amoxicillin monotherapy and discharge with close outpatient follow-up
- DAdministration of intravenous sodium bicarbonate
- EMeasurement of serum thyroid-stimulating hormone and free thyroxine levels