A -year-old girl is brought to the pediatric clinic by her father due to a -day history of high fever, productive cough, and decreased appetite. The father notes that she occasionally holds her right side when she coughs. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she has received all scheduled childhood vaccinations. Her temperature is (), pulse is , and respirations are . Oxygen saturation is on room air. The patient appears fatigued but is interactive and does not have intercostal retractions or nasal flaring. Lung auscultation reveals focal fine crackles and decreased breath sounds in the right lower lung field. No wheezing or stridor is present. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- High-dose oral amoxicillinCevap
- BOral azithromycin
- COral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- DIntravenous ceftriaxone
- EInhaled albuterol
Cevap
The correct next step is to prescribe high-dose oral amoxicillin.
This patient presents with acute onset of high fever, tachypnea, and focal right-sided crackles, which are classic signs of typical community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). In preschool-aged children (typically 6 months to 5 years), the most common typical bacterial cause is Streptococcus pneumoniae. Because she has normal oxygen saturation, no signs of severe respiratory distress, and is generally well-appearing, outpatient management is indicated. The first-line empiric therapy is high-dose oral amoxicillin, which provides excellent, narrow-spectrum coverage against S. pneumoniae.
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Anahtar Kavram
Diagnosis and outpatient management of typical community-acquired pneumonia in preschool-aged children.