A 45-year-old man with a 10-year history of schizoaffective disorder, bipolar type, is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit due to a severe manic episode with psychotic features. For the past week, he has slept only two hours per night, exhibits pressured speech, and holds the grandiose delusion that he is the chief executive officer of a multinational corporation. On evaluation, he is highly agitated, pacing the halls, and refusing to take any oral medications. The treating psychiatrist determines that the patient currently lacks decision-making capacity. His brother, who is his designated healthcare proxy, arrives at the hospital and tells the physician, "He is completely out of control. When this happened three years ago, electroconvulsive therapy and haloperidol worked perfectly to bring him back. Please administer those treatments right away before he gets worse."
A review of the patient's medical record reveals a legally valid psychiatric advance directive created two years ago when the patient was euthymic and possessed full decision-making capacity. The directive explicitly states: "Under no circumstances do I consent to the administration of electroconvulsive therapy or any first-generation antipsychotics, including haloperidol, due to severe adverse reactions I experienced in the past."
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Honor the advance directive by withholding the refused treatments and administering a second-generation antipsychotic insteadCevap
- BProceed with electroconvulsive therapy and haloperidol as requested by the designated healthcare proxy
- CInitiate citalopram monotherapy to stabilize the mood disorder and address the agitation
- DRevise the diagnosis to brief psychotic disorder due to the acute presentation of his current symptoms
- EContact the patient's current employer to disclose his manic episode because his delusions involve corporate operations