A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services due to severe, progressively worsening shortness of breath that began abruptly ago. Over the past week, he has noticed increased swelling in his lower legs and difficulty sleeping flat. He has a history of essential hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a 50-pack-year smoking history. Current medications include metformin, sitagliptin, and amlodipine. On arrival, he is visibly distressed, diaphoretic, and using accessory muscles of respiration. Temperature is (), pulse is , blood pressure is , and respirations are . Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of on room air. Physical examination reveals jugular venous distention to the angle of the mandible while the patient is sitting upright. Lung auscultation reveals prolonged expiration, diffuse expiratory wheezes, and fine crackles at both lung bases. Cardiac auscultation reveals a regular tachycardia and an S3 gallop. Bilateral 2+ pitting edema is present up to the mid-calves.
Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count:
Serum sodium:
Serum potassium:
Serum bicarbonate:
Blood urea nitrogen:
Serum creatinine:
Serum lactate:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): (Normal: )
Free thyroxine (T4): (Normal: )
Arterial blood gas on room air:
pH:
pCO2:
pO2:
A chest radiograph shows cardiomegaly, bilateral perihilar opacities, and fluid in the horizontal fissure. Gram stain of the frothy sputum shows rare polymorphonuclear leukocytes and abundant normal respiratory flora without predominant organisms.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdministration of inhaled albuterol and systemic glucocorticoids
- BInitiation of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- Intravenous administration of furosemideCevap
- DIntravenous administration of levothyroxine
- EIntravenous administration of sodium bicarbonate