A 38-year-old woman is evaluated by the surgical team 24 hours after admission for a mechanical small bowel obstruction. Her initial management included intravenous fluid resuscitation, bowel rest, and nasogastric tube decompression. Over the last 3 hours, she has developed severe, constant abdominal pain that is distinctly different from the cramping pain she experienced on admission. She underwent a total abdominal hysterectomy for uterine fibroids 4 years ago. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure is 96/60 mmHg, pulse is 124/min, and respirations are 22/min. On physical examination, the abdomen is distended. There is marked right lower quadrant tenderness with guarding and rebound. The nasogastric tube has drained 400 mL of bilious fluid since placement. Laboratory results demonstrate a leukocyte count of 18,000/mm³ with 15% bands, and a serum lactate of 3.5 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyCevap
- BComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- CContinuation of conservative management with serial abdominal examinations
- DDiagnostic laparoscopy
- ETherapeutic colonoscopy with decompression