A 52-year-old man was admitted to the hospital 3 days ago for acute pyelonephritis. At the time of admission, he presented with a temperature of (), left-sided costovertebral angle tenderness, and leukocytosis. He was empirically started on intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam. Currently, he has been afebrile for 24 hours, his flank pain has largely resolved, and he is eating a regular diet without nausea. The urine culture obtained on admission has grown of *Escherichia coli*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing indicates the isolate is susceptible to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, levofloxacin, ceftriaxone, and piperacillin-tazobactam. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's infection?
- Transition to oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazoleCevap
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CSwitch to intravenous ceftriaxone
- DTransition to oral linezolid
- ETransition to oral fosfomycin