A 61-year-old man is evaluated in the surgical ward for new-onset right-sided back pain. He is currently on postoperative day following an open radical retropubic prostatectomy for localized prostate adenocarcinoma. His early postoperative recovery was routine, and he is tolerating a regular diet. Over the past hours, he has developed a fever and constant, dull pain in his right flank. He has a suprapubic catheter in place that is draining clear yellow urine. His temperature is (), blood pressure is mmHg, pulse is /min, and respiratory rate is /min. Physical examination demonstrates a soft, non-tender abdomen and a clean lower midline incision. There is pronounced right-sided costovertebral angle tenderness. Laboratory evaluation reveals a leukocyte count of . Analysis of the urine from the suprapubic catheter is negative for leukocyte esterase and nitrites, and shows - leukocytes/hpf. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrastCevap
- BEmpiric intravenous administration of ceftriaxone
- CDuplex ultrasonography of the lower extremities
- DChest radiography
- EIrrigation of the suprapubic catheter