A 38-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his partner due to a 2-week history of progressively worsening headaches, nausea, and confusion. He was diagnosed with HIV infection 5 years ago but has been nonadherent to his antiretroviral therapy for the past 2 years. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min. Physical examination shows lethargy and bilateral papilledema, but no focal motor weakness or sensory deficits. Laboratory studies show a CD4 T-lymphocyte count of 34 cells/mm³.
A CT scan of the head shows no mass effect, hemorrhage, or hydrocephalus. A lumbar puncture is performed with an opening pressure of . Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals:
Leukocyte count: 45/mm³ (85% lymphocytes)
Glucose: 30 mg/dL
Protein: 95 mg/dL
CSF cryptococcal antigen is positive.
He is admitted to the hospital and immediately started on intravenous liposomal amphotericin B and oral flucytosine. Four days later, his partner reports that the patient is significantly more difficult to arouse and has been complaining of severe blurred vision. His temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F). Neurologic examination shows a sluggish pupillary light reflex bilaterally and worsening papilledema. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdd intravenous dexamethasone
- BInitiate antiretroviral therapy
- CSwitch to high-dose intravenous fluconazole
- Perform a therapeutic lumbar punctureCevap
- EConsult neurosurgery for ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement