A 71-year-old man with a history of a cerebrovascular accident and neurogenic bladder managed with a chronic indwelling urethral catheter is evaluated during a routine home health visit. He reports feeling well and denies fever, chills, flank pain, suprapubic discomfort, or increased spasticity. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen and no costovertebral angle tenderness. The urine in his collection bag appears cloudy. A urinalysis reveals positive leukocyte esterase and white blood cells per high-power field. A urine culture obtained 48 hours ago grows of *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- APrescribe a 7-day course of oral ciprofloxacin
- BAdmit to the hospital for intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- Observation without antimicrobial therapyCevap
- DAdminister a single dose of intravenous ceftriaxone
- ERemove the catheter and prescribe oral nitrofurantoin