A 72-year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day 3 following an elective open inguinal hernia repair. He complains of sudden, severe pain and swelling in his right knee that woke him from sleep. His medical history is significant for chronic kidney disease with a baseline serum creatinine of 2.6 mg/dL, and hypertension. His current medications include subcutaneous enoxaparin and oral diltiazem. Temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 142/84 mm Hg, and heart rate is 92/min. Physical examination shows a warm, markedly swollen, and erythematous right knee. Range of motion is severely limited by pain. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 12,500/µL and a serum creatinine of 2.7 mg/dL. Arthrocentesis of the right knee yields 25 mL of turbid yellow fluid. Synovial fluid analysis reveals a leukocyte count of 35,000/µL (85% neutrophils). Polarized light microscopy demonstrates numerous rhomboid-shaped crystals with positive birefringence. Gram stain reveals no organisms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AObtain a chest radiograph and blood cultures
- BOral indomethacin
- Intra-articular triamcinolone injectionCevap
- DOral colchicine
- EIntravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone