A 62-year-old man comes to the clinic because of severe, excruciating pain in his right great toe that began abruptly overnight. He cannot bear weight on his right foot or tolerate the bedsheets touching his toe. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and stage 4 chronic kidney disease. Current medications include amlodipine, insulin glargine, and lisinopril. His temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F), blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, and pulse is 92/min. Physical examination reveals a markedly erythematous, swollen, warm, and exquisitely tender right first metatarsophalangeal joint. Range of motion is severely limited due to pain. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine level of 2.6 mg/dL (baseline 2.5 mg/dL) and a serum uric acid level of 5.8 mg/dL (normal: 4.0-8.5 mg/dL). Joint aspiration yields fluid with a leukocyte count of 35,000/mm³ and negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals. Gram stain shows no organisms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administration of intra-articular glucocorticoidsCevap
- BAdministration of oral indomethacin
- CInitiation of oral allopurinol
- DAdministration of intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- EMeasurement of 24-hour urine uric acid excretion