A 58-year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day 7 for fever and abdominal pain. He underwent an emergent exploratory laparotomy and partial ileocecal resection for a perforated appendix. His recovery was initially uncomplicated; his urinary catheter was removed on postoperative day 2, and he has been tolerating a soft diet since day 4. Today, he reports nausea, anorexia, and a persistent dull ache in his right lower abdomen. His temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), blood pressure is 114/76 mm Hg, pulse is 112/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. Physical examination reveals a midline surgical incision that is clean, dry, and well-approximated with intact surgical staples. There is no surrounding erythema, induration, or discharge. His abdomen is mildly distended with localized tenderness in the right lower quadrant, but no rebound or guarding is present. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvisCevap
- BRemoval of surgical staples and bedside opening of the incision
- CInitiation of empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics and observation
- DLower extremity venous duplex ultrasonography
- EPlain radiography of the abdomen