A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his husband due to severe confusion, agitation, and visual hallucinations. The husband reports that the patient has a history of bipolar disorder and has been hospitalized twice in the past for manic episodes. The patient recently experienced a severe depressive episode and was started on fluoxetine three weeks ago by a new provider. The patient also has a severe alcohol use disorder but abruptly stopped drinking 72 hours ago. On physical examination, the patient is profoundly diaphoretic, tremulous, and continuously picks at his skin, claiming there are "spiders everywhere." His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure is 158/96 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination reveals no nuchal rigidity, clear lungs to auscultation bilaterally, and a benign abdomen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intravenous diazepamCevap
- BAdminister broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
- CInitiate sertraline monotherapy for mood stabilization
- DDiagnose schizophreniform disorder and begin oral risperidone
- EAdminister intramuscular meperidine for acute sedation