A 62-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for ongoing management of ventilator-associated pneumonia. He was intubated 6 days ago for severe acute respiratory distress syndrome. Three days ago, he developed a new fever, increased purulent endotracheal secretions, and worsening oxygenation. At that time, empiric intravenous vancomycin, cefepime, and ciprofloxacin were initiated. Today, his temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), leukocyte count has decreased from 16,000/mm³ to 9,500/mm³, and his oxygen requirements have significantly improved. Blood cultures have shown no growth. Endotracheal aspirate culture from three days ago grows Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Susceptibility testing shows the isolate is susceptible to cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, and ciprofloxacin. A methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) nasal polymerase chain reaction screen performed on admission was negative, and no Gram-positive organisms are seen on the respiratory culture Gram stain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in antibiotic management?
- Discontinue vancomycin and ciprofloxacin, and continue cefepime monotherapyCevap
- BDiscontinue vancomycin, and continue both cefepime and ciprofloxacin
- CContinue vancomycin, cefepime, and ciprofloxacin for a full 7-day course
- DDiscontinue the current regimen and switch to intravenous meropenem
- EDiscontinue cefepime and ciprofloxacin, and continue vancomycin monotherapy