A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital prior to planned discharge. He was admitted 5 days ago for an acute exacerbation of heart failure. His medical history is notable for ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 30%, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
During this hospitalization, he has received aggressive diuresis with intravenous furosemide, achieving a net negative fluid balance of . He currently feels well and denies shortness of breath.
Vital signs are temperature , blood pressure , pulse , and respiratory rate . Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air.
Physical examination reveals absent jugular venous distension and no lower extremity edema. Auscultation of the lungs reveals decreased breath sounds at the right lung base.
A chest radiograph demonstrates a small-to-moderate right-sided pleural effusion, which is unchanged from admission. Because the effusion has not resolved with diuresis, a diagnostic thoracentesis is performed to rule out other etiologies.
| Laboratory Test | Serum | Pleural Fluid |
|---|---|---|
| Total protein | ||
| Albumin | ||
| Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) |
Pleural fluid analysis also shows a leukocyte count of (predominantly mononuclear) and a glucose level of .
| Parameter | Value |
|---|---|
| pH | |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Observation and transition to oral diureticsCevap
- BEscalate to broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
- CAdminister systemic corticosteroids and scheduled bronchodilators
- DPlace a tube thoracostomy for pleural fluid drainage
- EAdminister intravenous acetazolamide