A 38-year-old man is hospitalized for intravenous antibiotic therapy for severe lower extremity cellulitis. Over the past 48 hours, the nursing staff reports escalating behavioral difficulties. The patient exhibits rapid, unpredictable shifts in affect, ranging from profound tearfulness to intense, sarcastic outbursts. He recently told the attending physician, "You are the only competent doctor in this hospital; the morning nurses are maliciously ignoring my needs." Following a minor delay in receiving his morning meal tray, he became extremely distressed and reported briefly hearing a voice telling him he is "worthless." This perceptual disturbance completely resolved within two hours after a supportive conversation with the clinical social worker. His medical record indicates a history of recurrent impulsive medication overdoses, chronic feelings of emptiness, and tumultuous interpersonal relationships. His home medications include phenelzine for a history of treatment-resistant depression. The patient is currently demanding that the team "do something to fix my severe depression right now."
Which 3 of the following interventions are appropriate components of this patient's comprehensive management plan during this admission?
- Establish a unified treatment team approach with explicitly defined contingencies for disruptive behaviorCevap
- BInitiate fluoxetine to target his severe depressive symptoms and chronic feelings of emptiness
- Validate the patient's emotional distress while adhering strictly to professional boundaries and care protocolsCevap
- DDiagnose brief psychotic disorder based on the auditory hallucinations and initiate a scheduled second-generation antipsychotic
- EInitiate citalopram monotherapy to manage his mood lability under the assumption of bipolar depression
- Schedule frequent, brief, planned check-ins by the primary nurse rather than responding exclusively to acute distress callsCevap