A 64-year-old woman is evaluated on postoperative day 6 following an elective right total knee arthroplasty. Her past medical history is significant for moderate chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. Since the surgery, she has been receiving continuous intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam for surgical site prophylaxis due to a suspected intraoperative contamination event that was later deemed low-risk. Over the last 24 hours, she has developed a new temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F) and reports five episodes of profuse, watery diarrhea associated with mild lower abdominal cramping. Vital signs include a blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg, a heart rate of 98/min, and a respiratory rate of 16/min. Oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. Physical examination reveals mild diffuse abdominal tenderness without rebound or guarding. Chest auscultation reveals distant breath sounds but no crackles or wheezes. The surgical incision is clean, dry, and intact, and both calves are soft and non-tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue piperacillin-tazobactam and send a stool sample for Clostridioides difficile testingCevap
- BContinue piperacillin-tazobactam and administer oral loperamide
- CEscalate antimicrobial therapy to intravenous meropenem and obtain blood cultures
- DOrder a lower extremity venous duplex ultrasonography
- EAdminister intravenous furosemide and nebulized albuterol