A -year-old man is hospitalized for the treatment of an acute right-sided pulmonary embolism. He is initially started on a continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin infusion. On hospital day 6, his platelet count is noted to have decreased from a baseline of on admission to . Concurrently, he reports new-onset left leg pain and swelling. Venous duplex ultrasonography reveals a new acute deep venous thrombosis in the left femoral vein. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is suspected. The heparin infusion is immediately discontinued, and intravenous argatroban is initiated. A serotonin release assay later returns positive, confirming the diagnosis. Four days later, the patient's leg swelling has significantly improved, and his respiratory status remains stable. His current platelet count is . The patient is eager to transition to an oral anticoagulant and be discharged. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's anticoagulation?
- AInitiate warfarin therapy immediately and continue argatroban until the INR is therapeutic
- Delay the initiation of warfarin until the platelet count recovers to at least Cevap
- CDiscontinue argatroban and initiate subcutaneous enoxaparin as a bridge to warfarin
- DAdminister a pooled platelet transfusion to correct the thrombocytopenia, then initiate warfarin
- EDiscontinue argatroban and initiate a prophylactic dose of subcutaneous fondaparinux