A 12-year-old boy is brought to the clinic for a 4-week history of right-sided knee pain and a progressive limp. The pain is characterized as a dull ache that is exacerbated by walking and participating in sports. He has no history of trauma, falls, or fever. His medical history is significant for growth hormone deficiency, for which he has been receiving somatropin injections for the past 6 months. His body mass index is at the 60th percentile for his age. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. On physical examination, there is no swelling, erythema, or localized tenderness over the right knee, and ligamentous testing is stable. Range of motion of the right knee is full and painless. When the patient walks, he exhibits an antalgic gait with the right foot pointing outward. During examination of the hips, passive flexion of the right hip results in obligate external rotation of the thigh. Internal rotation of the right hip is limited compared to the left. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Obtain bilateral anteroposterior and frog-leg lateral pelvic radiographsCevap
- BObtain anteroposterior and lateral radiographs of the right knee
- CObtain an ultrasound of the right hip
- DMeasure serum erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein
- ERecommend knee immobilization and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs