A 41-year-old man is evaluated on the surgical floor due to a new-onset fever and abdominal discomfort. He is currently on postoperative day 7 following an emergency laparoscopic appendectomy for ruptured appendicitis. The patient was tolerating a regular diet until yesterday, when he developed anorexia, nausea, and a progressively worsening ache in his right lower quadrant. His temperature is (), pulse is , respirations are , and blood pressure is . Physical examination reveals a mildly distended abdomen with focal deep tenderness in the right lower quadrant. There is no rebound tenderness or guarding. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. The laparoscopic port incisions are clean, dry, and intact with no surrounding erythema, induration, or purulent drainage. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of with neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvisCevap
- BEmpiric initiation of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
- CBedside opening of the surgical incisions
- DImmediate exploratory laparotomy
- ENasogastric tube placement and strict bowel rest