A 42-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for ongoing management of right knee septic arthritis. He originally presented 3 days ago with an acutely painful, swollen right knee and a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F). Initial arthrocentesis revealed purulent synovial fluid with 95,000 leukocytes/mm³, and a Gram stain demonstrated Gram-positive cocci in clusters. He underwent prompt arthroscopic irrigation and debridement, and was empirically started on intravenous vancomycin. Today, the patient reports feeling much better, his knee pain has decreased, and he has been afebrile for 24 hours. Final synovial fluid cultures are positive for Staphylococcus aureus. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing shows that the isolate is resistant to penicillin but susceptible to oxacillin, cefazolin, clindamycin, and vancomycin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the antibiotic management of this patient?
- Switch to intravenous cefazolinCevap
- BContinue intravenous vancomycin
- CSwitch to intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DSwitch to intravenous linezolid
- ESwitch to intravenous daptomycin