A 29-year-old woman, G1P0, at 28 weeks gestation is evaluated in the outpatient clinic due to worsening sadness and exhaustion. For the past six weeks, she has felt 'overwhelmed and hopeless,' crying daily. She reports profound despondency that is characteristically worse in the morning, complete loss of appetite, and terminal insomnia, waking up at 3:00 AM and unable to return to sleep. She recently developed an upper respiratory infection and frequently takes over-the-counter dextromethorphan for a persistent cough. Her physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin level of g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume of m . She asks the physician to prescribe an antidepressant medication to help her cope. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Elicit a history regarding past periods of decreased need for sleep and unusually elevated energyCevap
- BInitiate sertraline therapy and instruct her to discontinue it immediately once her mood returns to baseline
- CInitiate venlafaxine therapy as first-line treatment for peripartum-onset depression
- DInitiate phenelzine therapy to target her severe neurovegetative symptoms
- EInitiate intravenous iron therapy to treat her anemia as the primary cause of fatigue