A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on postoperative day 6 following an elective right total hip arthroplasty. His postoperative course had been unremarkable until today, when he developed new-onset pain and swelling in his left calf. He has been receiving subcutaneous unfractionated heparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis since the day of surgery. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals a swollen, tender left calf with mild erythema. Laboratory studies are obtained:
| Laboratory Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | ||
| Leukocyte count | ||
| Platelet count |
Review of his admission laboratory results from six days ago shows a platelet count of .
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ASwitch unfractionated heparin to enoxaparin
- BTransfuse one unit of apheresis platelets
- Discontinue unfractionated heparin and initiate argatrobanCevap
- DContinue unfractionated heparin and order lower extremity venous ultrasonography
- EObtain blood cultures and start broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
Cevap
Discontinue unfractionated heparin and initiate argatroban
The correct answer addresses a high clinical suspicion for Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) type 2. HIT typically presents 5 to 10 days after starting heparin with a platelet count drop of >50%. Because it is a highly prothrombotic state (evidenced here by the likely new DVT), the immediate life-saving intervention is to discontinue all heparin products and initiate an alternative anticoagulant, such as a direct thrombin inhibitor (e.g., argatroban, bivalirudin) or fondaparinux.
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Anahtar Kavram
Diagnosis and management of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)