A -year-old man is admitted to the general medical floor with a -day history of fever, chills, and a cough productive of rust-colored sputum. His past medical history is significant only for benign prostatic hyperplasia. He has not had any recent hospitalizations, does not reside in a nursing facility, and has not received any antibiotics in the past year. Vital signs on presentation include a temperature of (), blood pressure of , pulse of , and respiratory rate of . Oxygen saturation is on via nasal cannula. Chest radiography demonstrates a dense consolidation in the left lower lobe. The admitting physician empirically prescribes intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin. A high-quality sputum Gram stain demonstrates many polymorphonuclear leukocytes and abundant Gram-positive diplococci. Which of the following is the most appropriate modification to this patient's antimicrobial regimen?
- Switch to intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycinCevap
- BContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin
- CSwitch to intravenous cefepime and intravenous levofloxacin
- DDiscontinue vancomycin and continue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- EDiscontinue piperacillin-tazobactam and continue intravenous vancomycin