A 64-year-old man with a 15-year history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for a chronic ulcer on the plantar surface of his right foot. He first noticed the ulcer 8 weeks ago. He has established peripheral neuropathy and reports no pain at the site. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 135/82 mmHg, and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination reveals a 2.5-cm, full-thickness ulcer under the first metatarsal head. The ulcer base is composed of pale granulation tissue. There is no surrounding erythema, warmth, fluctuance, or purulent discharge. A sterile, blunt stainless-steel probe easily reaches the underlying bone. Pedal pulses are palpable bilaterally. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of . A plain radiograph of the right foot demonstrates cortical erosion and periosteal elevation at the first metatarsal head. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Obtain a bone biopsy for microbiological culture prior to initiating antibiotic therapyCevap
- BAdmit the patient to the hospital and initiate intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- CObtain a superficial swab culture of the ulcer base to direct oral antibiotic therapy
- DInitiate oral ciprofloxacin and clindamycin and schedule a follow-up appointment in 2 weeks
- EPrescribe a 6-week course of oral linezolid to empirically treat methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus