A 72-year-old man is admitted to the hospital due to fatigue, dark stools, and symptomatic anemia. His medical history includes hypertension and chronic kidney disease. Laboratory studies on admission show a hemoglobin level of . A transfusion of packed red blood cells is initiated. One hour into the transfusion, the patient reports the sudden onset of shortness of breath and a dry cough. The transfusion is immediately stopped. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of on room air. Physical examination reveals elevated jugular venous pressure. Pulmonary auscultation reveals bilateral basilar crackles. Cardiac auscultation reveals an S3 gallop. There is no rash, wheezing, or stridor. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intravenous furosemideCevap
- BAnalyze donor plasma for anti-leukocyte antibodies
- CAdminister intravenous diphenhydramine and hydrocortisone
- DObtain blood cultures and administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
- EAdminister oral acetaminophen and resume the transfusion at a slower rate