A 45-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on postoperative day 2 following an open reduction and internal fixation of a fractured tibia. The nursing staff reports that he has become increasingly agitated, confused, and restless over the past 4 hours. He is sweating profusely and frantically points to the corner of the room, claiming that spiders are crawling on the walls. His temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 165/100 mmHg, pulse is 118/min, and respiratory rate is 20/min. Physical examination reveals a coarse, bilateral resting tremor in his hands. When contacted, the patient's husband reports that the patient typically drinks half a bottle of whiskey every evening but has not consumed any alcohol since his hospital admission. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intravenous lorazepamCevap
- BObtain blood cultures and start broad-spectrum antibiotics
- CAdminister intramuscular haloperidol
- DConsult psychiatry for management of a brief psychotic disorder
- ERemove the surgical dressings and probe the incision site for infection